(03-06-2024, 02:48 PM)Sneakers Wrote:

(03-06-2024, 01:22 PM)mikesez Wrote: Right, and the property owner passes it on to the tenant.

As all property owners are burdened by property tax, there is no possibility that owners will compete on this basis, and the price paid by all renters simply goes up.

In effect the renters pay the property tax.

If it were not so, if for some reason the landlord couldn't fund the property tax using money from the tenant, the landlord would walk away from the property and let the tax assessor have it.

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LOL.  You clearly know nothing about rental property, but even so, you might have been able to draft a more informed response if you had looked up the definition of deficiency judgement before posting. 

BTW, absent rare and very unusual circumstances, lenders will almost always pay delinquent taxes, rather than allowing a mortgaged property to go to a tax sale.

Why do you assume a bank is involved?
Fine, add the bank into the model.
Are they paying those delinquent taxes out of the goodness of their hearts?
If the landlord has a mortgage, maybe he isn't a landlord? Maybe the bank is the landlord.
Regardless, neither is paying the property tax out of their funds.
They are paying it out of the funds from the tenant.
The tenant pays the property tax along with every other predictable expense that is known at the time of the rental agreement, plus the landlords profit, plus the banker's interest.  The tenant pays all or else the property would not be built and offered for rent.

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