Quote:Why was representation based on counting slaves - as 3/5 a person? What do you think Congress was dealing with regarding the Missouri Compromise (1820) and the Kansas and Nebraska Act (1854)?

^^ Factual.


The Southern secession was in fact due to both slavery and state rights. Meaning:


At the time, the amount of representation in Congress for Southern states partly depended on the ability to legally count slaves (3/5 of a person) towards census in order to garner more seats in the government. Southern states belonging to the same political party, it made it easier to pass legislations in their favor from the extra voting power.


Obviously, opposing political parties and states without the ability for extra representation was strongly against that.


Anyhoo,,, slavery was an absolute abomination. But, much like today's politics, there were other motives to do away with (or trying to keep it for the south) the practice.


It's very similar to today's debate about Amnesty/Immigration. Whether someone is for or against it in basic principle, may come down to extra voting power for one side of the political spectrum.


Of course the North thought slavery was wrong. But, it also didn't hurt their cause that doing away with the practice would severely hamper their political opposition's power in Congress (vice-versa for the southern states).


It was all political first/ humanitarian second.

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