I just want to point something out here.  Was slavery wrong back then?  I'm talking about by 1700's/1800's standards not 2019 standards.  Back then it was an accepted practice and "normal".    It was also perfectly legal up until 1863.

I am by no means saying that the practice was "right", I am just pointing out that if you put yourself back into that era your feelings might be different on the matter.

Put it this way, between 1920 and 1933 production, importation, transportation, and sale of alcoholic beverages was against the law.  Was this the right thing do do either morally or legally?

I'm not comparing the two things directly, I'm comparing them ideologically.  Should reparations be paid to descendants of those that were denied their access and/or arrested or imprisoned because of their access to alcoholic beverages?

Again I am not comparing the two issues to one another, I am just illustrating the point that the idea of reparations is ridiculous regarding both situations.

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